No doubt many of you have pondered this. But I'd be interested in getting y'all's thoughts. What do you think the significance is of certain ceremonial laws existing [in one form or another] prior to the giving of the Law in the MC?
- Cain and Abel offering sacrifices (Gen. 4:3-4)
- Noah recognizing the clean/unclean distinction (Gen. 7:8)
- Levirate marriage in the case of Tamar and Onan (Gen. 38:6-7)
I know how I'd answer this if I was a Hebrew Roots advocate: I'd say, "See, those laws were/are intrinsically moral, not just of dispensational significance."
But I'm not a Hebrew Roots advocate. I believe those Laws were restorative/pedagogical, not moral. And I'm not suggesting that they couldn't function in a typical way prior to the official giving of the Law (just as they did after the giving of the Law). But I'm just trying figure out the best way to articulate their place prior to the giving of the Law in relation to their place after the giving of the Law.
And one reason I'm asking is because I've been known to make similar arguments when it comes to the moral law. For example, I'll point out that in Exodus 16 the Sabbath was already being observed prior to the giving of the Law. Therefore, I argue, the Sabbath is moral in nature, because, you see, it was being observed prior to the giving of the Law, so it's not merely a law that was given to the people of Israel to teach them about the Messiah. But that's not really a strong argument if the same thing could be said about certain ceremonial laws. Thoughts?
- Cain and Abel offering sacrifices (Gen. 4:3-4)
- Noah recognizing the clean/unclean distinction (Gen. 7:8)
- Levirate marriage in the case of Tamar and Onan (Gen. 38:6-7)
I know how I'd answer this if I was a Hebrew Roots advocate: I'd say, "See, those laws were/are intrinsically moral, not just of dispensational significance."
But I'm not a Hebrew Roots advocate. I believe those Laws were restorative/pedagogical, not moral. And I'm not suggesting that they couldn't function in a typical way prior to the official giving of the Law (just as they did after the giving of the Law). But I'm just trying figure out the best way to articulate their place prior to the giving of the Law in relation to their place after the giving of the Law.
And one reason I'm asking is because I've been known to make similar arguments when it comes to the moral law. For example, I'll point out that in Exodus 16 the Sabbath was already being observed prior to the giving of the Law. Therefore, I argue, the Sabbath is moral in nature, because, you see, it was being observed prior to the giving of the Law, so it's not merely a law that was given to the people of Israel to teach them about the Messiah. But that's not really a strong argument if the same thing could be said about certain ceremonial laws. Thoughts?
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